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American Government Pre Test

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 

Which is an example of how Congress may use its legislative powers?
a.
It may veto a President’s legislation.
b.
It may override a President’s veto.
c.
It may settle arguments in court.
d.
It may interpret the meaning of laws.
 

 2. 

The First Continental Congress
a.
sent a Declaration of Rights to George III
b.
served as the first government of the United States for five years.
c.
adopted the Declaration of Independence.
d.
ratified the Articles of Confederation.
 

 3. 

The 22nd Amendment was passed in reaction to what unwritten custom that was broken?
a.
the no-third-term rule
b.
the electoral college
c.
senatorial courtesy
d.
President’s Cabinet
 

 4. 

Which keeps a state court from ruling against a national treaty?
a.
reserved powers
b.
Full Faith and Credit Clause
c.
Bill of Rights
d.
Supremacy Clause
 

 5. 

Which is an exception to the Full Faith and Credit Clause?
a.
same-sex marriages
b.
property titles
c.
birth certificates
d.
civil lawsuit judgments
 

 6. 

Interstate compacts require the consent of
a.
Congress.
b.
the Supreme Court.
c.
a majority of all 50 States.
d.
a majority of the President’s Cabinet.
 

 7. 

Which party has dominated the Federal Government in recent decades?
a.
the Republican Party
b.
the Democratic Party
c.
neither of the major parties
d.
a coalition of Democrats and Republicans
 

 8. 

Why did the Voting Rights Act of 1965 require preclearance?
a.
to keep states from discriminating in election laws
b.
to stop certain behavior by public officials
c.
to get African Americans to have their ballots approved by election officials
d.
to help poll workers properly identify voters
 

 9. 

What method of nominating candidates took the place of the caucus system in the 1830s?
a.
blanket primary
b.
closed primary
c.
self-announcement
d.
convention system
 

 10. 

Which of the following describes the nomination by petition method?
a.
gathering signatures at polling places on election day
b.
gathering signatures from a certain number of qualified voters in a district
c.
voting without going to a polling place on election day
d.
the use of special voting machines in general elections
 

 11. 

Which is a type of poll that asks a question of a large number of people who were not identified in a scientific way?
a.
random poll
b.
digital poll
c.
straw poll
d.
quota poll
 

 12. 

Which of the following usually has the earliest influence on a person’s political opinions?
a.
gender and race
b.
family and school
c.
work and friends
d.
television and radio
 

 13. 

Why are the media not a good way of measuring public opinion?
a.
The media often emphasize the majority’s views.
b.
The media often reflect only the views of a vocal minority.
c.
The media often withhold information they receive.
d.
The media often are ignored by elected officials.
 

 14. 

What is the role schools play in the formation of political opinions in children?
a.
Schools indoctrinate children to be good citizens.
b.
Schools undo the influence of the family.
c.
Schools must remain neutral and so do not influence children’s opinions.
d.
Schools teach children to embrace the majority opinion of the community in which they live.
 

 15. 

Which is an issue-oriented interest group that promotes conservation?
a.
Sierra Club
b.
Brookings Institute
c.
National Grange
d.
Heritage Foundation
 

 16. 

One way lobbyists use the judicial branch to realize their goals is by
a.
helping Congress write legislation.
b.
filing lawsuits.
c.
trying to influence presidential appointments.
d.
making campaign contributions.
 

 17. 

Based on Supreme Court cases, which of the following practices is permissible?
a.
drawing congressional districts with widely varying populations
b.
drawing congressional districts based solely on race
c.
drawing district lines using race as one of a mix of factors
d.
drawing “majority-minority” districts
 

 18. 

When would a State elect two senators in the same election?
a.
when one of the Senate seats for that State has been vacated by death, resignation, or expulsion
b.
only when both incumbent senators choose to run for reelection.
c.
never
d.
always
 

 19. 

Congress has applied the Necessary and Proper Clause to its use of the Commerce Clause. In doing so, how is the term “commerce” now defined by Congress?
a.
It refers to just trade within the states.
b.
It refers to just imports and exports.
c.
It refers to just government taxation and spending.
d.
It refers to just about every form of economic activity.
 

 20. 

Which describes an indirect tax?
a.
It is based on individual income.
b.
It is imposed on both imports and exports.
c.
It is collected in the price of products like gasoline or tobacco.
d.
It is collected by the states and then passed on to the federal government.
 

 21. 

Which is an example of a congressional power that is implied by the expressed power to levy taxes?
a.
the power to tax exports
b.
the power to establish federal banks
c.
the power to punish those who do not pay their taxes
d.
the power to appropriate funds for approved budget items
 

 22. 

How may Congress propose a constitutional amendment?
a.
with a two-thirds vote in each house
b.
at the request of one or more States
c.
by proposing it as a regular bill
d.
through a national vote
 

 23. 

Which of the following is an example of a congressional power that is implied by the expressed power to levy taxes?
a.
the power to tax exports
b.
the power to establish federal banks
c.
the power to punish those who do not pay their taxes
d.
the power to appropriate funds for approved budget items
 

 24. 

What do party whips do?
a.
They assist the floor leaders.
b.
They supervise the floor leaders.
c.
They are the floor leaders.
d.
They assist the Speaker of the House.
 

 25. 

Who becomes Acting President if the President becomes disabled?
a.
the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
b.
the President’s Chief of Staff
c.
the Vice President
d.
the Speaker of the House
 

 26. 

If the President does not act on a bill within 10 days of receiving it (and Congress has not adjourned), what happens to the bill?
a.
It is held until the next session.
c.
It is returned to Congress.
b.
It becomes law.
d.
It is automatically vetoed.
 

 27. 

Which executive department is responsible for ensuring border and transportation security?
a.
the Department of Homeland Security
b.
the Transportation Department
c.
the Commerce Department
d.
the Defense Department
 

 28. 

Which has helped to bring about the U.S. policy of internationalism?
a.
diplomatic immunity
b.
the global economy
c.
expansion of the State Department
d.
the right of legation
 

 29. 

Which of the following allowed many countries of Eastern Europe to join the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)?
a.
the fall of the Soviet Union
b.
the end of World War II
c.
the end of the Vietnam War
d.
the Truman Doctrine
 

 30. 

Which branch of the armed forces serves as a combat-ready land force for the navy?
a.
the marines
b.
the army
c.
the National Guard
d.
the Coast Guard
 

 31. 

Which organ of the United Nations bears the major responsibility for maintaining international peace?
a.
the Security Council
b.
the General Assembly
c.
the Trusteeship Council
d.
the Secretariat
 

 32. 

Which of the following are appointed to each federal judicial district by the President and the Senate?
a.
U.S. magistrates
b.
U.S. attorneys
c.
U.S. marshals
d.
U.S. bailiffs
 

 33. 

The government may not prohibit an assembly for which of the following reasons?
a.
when they occur
b.
where they take place
c.
what might be said
d.
how they are conducted
 

 34. 

Which part of the Constitution requires states to honor the 1st Amendment?
a.
the 9th Amendment
b.
the Preamble to the Constitution
c.
the Due Process Clause of the 14th Amendment
d.
the Free Exercise Clause of the 1st Amendment
 

 35. 

What is the main difference between civil rights and civil liberties?
a.
Civil rights are protections by government, while civil liberties are protections from government.
c.
Civil rights are enforced at the national level, while civil liberties are enforced at the State level.
b.
Civil liberties are an individual’s freedoms, while civil rights are an individual’s duties.
d.
Civil rights are absolute, while civil liberties are relative.
 

 36. 

Incorporation refers to the rights that are covered by the
a.
Due Process Clause.
c.
Free Exercise Clause.
b.
Establishment Clause.
d.
Incorporation Clause.
 

 37. 

Public lands set aside by the government for use by Native American tribes are called
a.
refuges.
b.
reservations.
c.
tribal states.
d.
assimilation camps.
 

 38. 

In the United Kingdom,
a.
the central government holds all power except that which it permits the regional governments.
b.
a confederate form of government has existed for hundreds of years.
c.
regional governments are just as powerful as the national government.
d.
regional governments generally legislate on matters that affect the entire country.
 

 39. 

The free enterprise system is based on which four factors?
a.
nationalization, public welfare, high taxation, command economy
b.
private ownership, individual initiative, profit, competition
c.
one-party rule, central planning, collectivization, state ownership
d.
land, capital, labor, entrepreneurship
 

 40. 

Which describes how most state legislatures are organized?
a.
The legislature is an important part of the judicial branch.
b.
The legislature is an important part of the executive branch.
c.
The legislature has a senate and a house of representatives.
d.
The legislature has only a house of representatives.
 

 41. 

How were the original 13 colonies ruled?
a.
by colonial charters
b.
by the Magna Carta
c.
by the U.S. Constitution
d.
by the Massachusetts constitution
 

 42. 

A unified court system
a.
is organized geographically.
b.
is presided over by the State governor.
c.
is organized on a functional or case-type basis.
d.
forces judges to hear cases in nearly all areas of the law.
 

 43. 

Why is the executive power at the state level considered “fragmented”?
a.
Executive power is shared among several elected officials.
b.
Governors share executive power with the judicial branch.
c.
Governors share executive power with the legislature.
d.
State executives have almost no power.
 

 44. 

Which would have the greatest impact on the type and quality of public services offered from state to state?
a.
the number of legal voters
b.
the size of state budgets
c.
level of concern for the needy
d.
the number of state agencies
 

 45. 

Based on Adam Smith’s first principle of sound taxation, which states that taxpayers should contribute in proportion to their ability to pay, which of the following taxes would Smith most likely find to be the fairest tax?
a.
State sales taxes
b.
the federal income tax
c.
a flat-rate vehicle registration fee
d.
all of these taxes working together as a system
 

 46. 

Which name would apply to a person who wants Congress to exercise only the expressed powers in the Constitution?
a.
strict constructionist
b.
liberal constructionist
c.
liberal Democrat
d.
strict Republican
 

 47. 

What is the underlying principle behind the right of the accused to “take the Fifth?”
a.
The accused has the right to confront witnesses.
c.
The accused does not have to prove his or her innocence.
b.
The accused must have access to counsel.
d.
All Americans may request a jury trial.
 

 48. 

What was the main subject of the writings of Alexander Solzhenitsyn?
a.
prison camps and human rights in the Soviet Union
b.
the European economy and banking system
c.
problems with communism in China
d.
U.S. interference in Latin American politics
 

 49. 

Which of the following is a legislative power that gives a state the authority to protect the health and safety of the state’s citizens?
a.
judicial power
b.
police power
c.
constituent power
d.
executive power
 

 50. 

Who is the principal executive officer in each of the 50 States?
a.
the entire State legislature
b.
the governor
c.
the lieutenant governor
d.
the president of the State senate
 



 
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